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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 11:24

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

For those who were actually old enough to have experienced the 1970s and not for those who were born in the 70s. What were the pros and cons of that era?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why do the Republican city officials at Springfield Ohio continue to deny that immigrants are eating pets to sabotage the Trump campaign, even though immigrant pet-eating is now widely believed to be true?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

How can we become the best humans? How can we trust each other?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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